I am particularly talking about Israel…..I understand that 20% of the population are Arabs, and that they are regarded as 2nd class citizens. How can Israel claim to be "democratic" if Arabs are treated as 2nd class citizens and if its a "Jewish" state?
I’m not denying Israel the right to be called a Jewish state, but if it is a Jewish state, isn’t that by definition NOT a democracy? Wouldn’t it be closer to a theocracy?
Although Israel is in fact a Jewish state but since its government and government institutions are secular it is not a theocracy.
Since it is a democracy in a similar model as other Western style democracies, then it is a democracy.
May 29th, 2010 at 9:24 pm
Although Israel is in fact a Jewish state but since its government and government institutions are secular it is not a theocracy.
Since it is a democracy in a similar model as other Western style democracies, then it is a democracy.
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